Anne Arundel Community College Statistics Ii Questions
Statistics II Assignment 3
Based on the lectures and practice activities in class answer the following questions Say true or false
1. Level of measurement is defined as a phrase that describes how measurable information was obtained while observing variables.
2. The Measure column is located in the Data View screen.
3. The IBM SPSS Statistics software program can consistently recognize the correct level of measurement that should be used to measure variables.
4. When using the IBM SPSS Statistics software the person trying to make sense of the data does not have to understand whether the variables were measured at the nominal, ordinal, or scale levels.
5. When using the ordinal level of measurement, we say that the differences (distances) between ranks are equal and fixed.
6. Printing a copy of the data entered can be very helpful when checking the accuracy of your work, unfortunately the IBM SPSS Statistics software does not allow to just print a portion of your data.
7. A printed summary of variable information can serve as a codebook by providing a list of all the variables and their codes for your categorical variables.
8. The IBM SPSS Statistics software provides a way to get help directly from the “welcome page” by directly clicking Getting Help and Support at the bottom of the page.
9. The Case Studies Help feature generates statistics and graphs to help you learn how the IBM SPSS Statistics software can best assist you when you have personal data to analyze.
10. One way to access assistance by using a Tutorial is to click Help on the Main Menu, then click Topics, and in the Table of Contents scroll to and click Tutorial. Multiple choices
11. To move from one Data View page to another when printing you need to click on which of the following? A. Data View B. Next Page C. Next Output D. Next Data Ans: __________________________________________
12. To print the desired portion, after clicking the mouse, and dragging the pointer over the desired cases and variables that you wish to print, you need to do which of the following? A. Click File, click Print, click Selection, and then click OK. B. Click Utilities, click Print, click Selection, and then click OK. C. Click File and then click Print. D. Click Data and then click Print. Ans: __________________________________________
13. When you obtain variable information through File and Display Data File Information, the Output Viewer opens with which of the following? A. Variable Analysis and Variable Values B. Variable Analysis and Variable Information C. Variable Graphs and Variable Information D. Variable Information and Variable Values Ans: __________________________________________
14. Which of the following selections presents statistics describing the central tendency of a distribution of values? A. standard deviation and kurtosis B. variance and kurtosis C. means and medians D. range and t-value Ans: __________________________________________
15. Which of the following cases would represent the proper use of the descriptive statistics known as the Mode? A. The distance between two test scores. B. Greatest number of speeders recorded per hour on Highway 1. C. The variability of test scores. D. The highest and lowest value for speeders on a specific section of Highway 395. Ans: __________________________________________
16. Which of the following choices accurately describes the median? A. Point in a bimodal distribution that separates the modes. B. Point in a distribution of values that divides those values into equal halves. C. 55% of the values fall below the median. D. Most frequently observed value divided by 2. Ans: __________________________________________
17. Which item, listed below, is a requirement for the one-sample t test? A. The population must have been tested favorably for its degree of robustness. B. Any outliers must be within 5 standard deviations. C. Regression slopes must equal zero. D. The sampled population should contain values that are approximately normally distributed. Ans: __________________________________________
18. When conducting the one-sample t test the null hypothesis states which of the following? A. The mean of the sampled population equals some hypothesized value. B. The means of the samples are statistically equal. C. The mean of the sampled population does not equal some hypothesized value. D. The means of the samples are statistically nonequivalent. Ans: __________________________________________
19. Which of the following is the basic purpose of the independent-samples t-test? A. Identify statistical independence for two or more samples. B. Seek statistical evidence that the two population means are significantly different. C. Examine data for differences in the means of two random samples and a hypothesized mean. D. Tests for the variability of two independent random samples. Ans: __________________________________________
20. The Mann–Whitney U test is the alternative nonparametric test that may be used in which of the following circumstances? A. When you have three or more means to compare. B. When the standard deviations of the samples are exactly equal. C. When the use of the independent-samples t-test is cost prohibitive. D. When the data assumptions required of the independent-samples t-test cannot be met. Ans: __________________________________________
21. The Mann–Whitney U test was designed to study data measured at which of the below levels of measurement? A. ratio or nominal B. scale or nominal C. scale or ordinal D. nominal or interval Ans: __________________________________________
22. What statistical test would you use if you were to take one random sample, divide the sample into two groups, and then compare the means of these two groups (assume all data assumptions are met)? A. Mann–Whitney U test B. one-sample t-test C. independent-samples t-test D. one-sample test of independence Ans: __________________________________________
23. When using the independent-samples t-test or the Mann–Whitney U test the null hypothesis depicts which of the following outcome? A. That the difference between the two sampled populations is equal to zero. B. The standard deviations of the two sampled populations are equal. C. That the difference between the two sampled populations is not equal to zero. D. The variances of the sampled populations are not equal. Ans: __________________________________________
24. The ANCOVA test allows the researcher to remove the effect of a known concomitant or control variable. What do we call this variable when using ANCOVA? A. experimental B. covariate C. polytomous D. predictor Ans: __________________________________________
25. A covariate is included in the ANCOVA test to enable one to evaluate how it may influence the value of which of the following choices? A. predictor B. independent variable C. control D. dependent variable Ans: __________________________________________
26. ANCOVA essentially tests whether certain factors have an effect on the dependent variable after removing the variance accounted for which of the following choices? A. covariate B. categorical variable C. continuous variable D. experimental variable Ans: __________________________________________
| Excellent | Good | Fair | Poor | ||
| Main Posting | 45 (45%) – 50 (50%)
Answers all parts of the discussion question(s) expectations with reflective critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module and current credible sources.
Supported by at least three current, credible sources.
Written clearly and concisely with no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style. |
40 (40%) – 44 (44%)
Responds to the discussion question(s) and is reflective with critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.
At least 75% of post has exceptional depth and breadth.
Supported by at least three credible sources.
Written clearly and concisely with one or no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style. |
35 (35%) – 39 (39%)
Responds to some of the discussion question(s).
One or two criteria are not addressed or are superficially addressed.
Is somewhat lacking reflection and critical analysis and synthesis.
Somewhat represents knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.
Post is cited with two credible sources.
Written somewhat concisely; may contain more than two spelling or grammatical errors.
Contains some APA formatting errors. |
0 (0%) – 34 (34%)
Does not respond to the discussion question(s) adequately.
Lacks depth or superficially addresses criteria.
Lacks reflection and critical analysis and synthesis.
Does not represent knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.
Contains only one or no credible sources.
Not written clearly or concisely.
Contains more than two spelling or grammatical errors.
Does not adhere to current APA manual writing rules and style. |
|
| Main Post: Timeliness | 10 (10%) – 10 (10%)
Posts main post by day 3. |
0 (0%) – 0 (0%) | 0 (0%) – 0 (0%) | 0 (0%) – 0 (0%)
Does not post by day 3. |
|
| First Response | 17 (17%) – 18 (18%)
Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings.
Responds fully to questions posed by faculty.
Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources.
Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives.
Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.
Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed.
Response is effectively written in standard, edited English. |
15 (15%) – 16 (16%)
Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings.
Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.
Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed.
Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources.
Response is effectively written in standard, edited English. |
13 (13%) – 14 (14%)
Response is on topic and may have some depth.
Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication.
Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed.
Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited. |
0 (0%) – 12 (12%)
Response may not be on topic and lacks depth.
Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication.
Responses to faculty questions are missing.
No credible sources are cited. |
|
| Second Response | 16 (16%) – 17 (17%)
Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings.
Responds fully to questions posed by faculty.
Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources.
Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives.
Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.
Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed.
Response is effectively written in standard, edited English. |
14 (14%) – 15 (15%)
Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings.
Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.
Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed.
Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources.
Response is effectively written in standard, edited English. |
12 (12%) – 13 (13%)
Response is on topic and may have some depth.
Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication.
Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed.
Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited. |
0 (0%) – 11 (11%)
Response may not be on topic and lacks depth.
Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication.
Responses to faculty questions are missing.
No credible sources are cited. |
|
| Participation | 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Meets requirements for participation by posting on three different days. |
0 (0%) – 0 (0%) | 0 (0%) – 0 (0%) | 0 (0%) – 0 (0%)
Does not meet requirements for participation by posting on 3 different days. |
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| Total Points: 100 | |||||